“An act of individual savings means
– so to speak – a decision not to have dinner to-day. But it does not necessitate a decision to have
dinner or to buy a pair of boots a week hence or a year hence or to consume any
specified thing at any specified date. Thus it depresses the business of
preparing to-day’s dinner without stimulating the business of making ready for
some future act of consumption. It is not a substitution of future
consumption-demand for present consumption-demand, – it is a net diminution of
such demand.” (Keynes, The General Theory, 211)
Keynes’s
proposition implicitly includes two circumstances where the supply of
savings cannot be aligned with demand for loanable funds – i.e., S ≠ I. In one
case, individuals who increase their cash balances pull money from the economic
system and put it, so to speak, in their pockets. If that money had been in the
banking system, then this will also result in a decrease in the supply of
loanable funds. The assumption is that, due to liquidity preference – preference to
hold cash on hand rather than on deposit – savings is split between cash
holdings and money saved in the financial system.
There is another circumstance where savings cannot be
aligned with investment. Even where savings is defined classically – as in,
money saved in the financial system – under a scenario of severe deflation, the
interest rate will fail this task. Imagine that the inflation rate, π, plus the
real rate of interest, r sum such that:
π + r < 0
or in other words
π < -r
The nominal rate is approximately defined by the above sum.
If the equilibrium nominal rate is negative, than that rate will not be
realized. Assuming the actual nominal rate remains positive, there will be an
excess supply of savings over the demand for savings.
The first of these cases, where demand to hold cash
increases, is unlikely to be very troubling long term. Only in the circumstance
where individuals make a substantial shift to holding base money, as opposed to
using deposit slips, checking accounts, etc…, will this result in substantial
contraction. This happened during the Great Depression and was the result of
tight monetary policies under a gold standard, beggar-thy-neighbor tariff
policies, and suspicion – a not incorrect suspicion – that gold in banks might be
confiscated. We should not be surprised that there was a banking collapse in
the U.S. in 1931 and that GDP continued to fall alongside a tidal wave of deflation
for another two years.
Which brings us back to the second point. The rate of
deflation after 1929 led to a divergence between the equilibrium nominal rate and the actual nominal rate. Within two years, prices of
consumer goods in the U.S. had fallen by nearly 30%. Unless the real rate of
interest was excessively high, the equilibrium nominal rate had to be negative
at the time.
It is under such unusual circumstances that Keynes wrote his
treaty. But Keynes pays little attention to the sources of these problems; Again, these were tight monetary policies under the gold standard and the initiation of
tariffs. It should be no surprise that Keynes comments at the beginning of The General Theory that “the characteristics
of the special case assumed by the classical theory happen not to be those of
the economic society in which we actually live, with the result that its
teaching is misleading and disastrous if we attempt to apply it to the facts of
experience (3).” He was certainly right concerning the economic situation that
he had observed. What makes little sense is why he paid such little attention
to the actual impediments to economic recovery. I’m tempted to credit his Utopianism,
as reflected by his active interest in eugenics and his desire to use fiscal
policy “as a deliberate instrument for the more equal distribution of incomes
(95).” Keynes was interested in radically changing the discipline and the depression had given him the opportunity.
James:
ReplyDeleteYour first case makes sense.
Your second case does not. Suppose that the interest rate cannot fall to equilibrate desired S and I. (Maybe it's against the law to borrow at less than x% interest). So there is an excess demand for bonds. Everybody wants to buy bonds but nobody wants to sell bonds. So people are unable to buy bonds. So what do they do with their income, if they can't actually buy bonds? Either they hold it as money (which is back to your first case), or else they shrug their shoulders, and buy goods instead.
You seem to be suggesting a third case: the interest rate fails to reach a level that clears the loan able funds market due to some impediment, legal or otherwise. I don't see how you are critiquing my point about severe deflation and nominal rates. You might make an argument that expected inflation was not as negative as actual inflation, but in principle that does not seem a problem. Am I misreading you?
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